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How Dividing by Zero 'Proves' 1 = 0
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1,828 Views • Oct 24, 2024 • Click to toggle off description
What if I told you that zero equals one?

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It sounds absurd, but with a little algebra and some strategic missteps, it’s easy to see how a seemingly logical process can lead to a wildly incorrect conclusion. Starting with the assumption that A=B=1, we follow a series of algebraic steps—multiplying, subtracting, and factoring—all of which seem perfectly reasonable. But when it comes time to divide by A−B, things start to go off the rails.

The key problem?

A−B is zero, and dividing by zero is never allowed in mathematics. Therefore, pushing forward with this faulty step produces the false conclusion that one equals zero. It’s a great example of how even simple math can be misused to reach an impossible result. Watch closely and see if you can spot where everything falls apart!

#MathTrick #AlgebraFails #DivisionByZero

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Views : 1,828
Genre: Education
License: Standard YouTube License
Uploaded At Oct 24, 2024 ^^


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RYD date created : 2024-12-09T23:10:17.121868Z
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18 Comments

Top Comments of this video!! :3

@Superalex2134

2 months ago

The problem is when you do
(a(a-b)/(a-b) = 0/(a-b) you are dividing by zero.

a-b = 1 - 1 = 0. So you can't divide.

10 |

@lMedicineMan

2 months ago

I called 9 0 0 instead, why won't they pick up

10 |

@Vic9994546

1 month ago

Dividing by a-b is dividing by 0 and you would probably have to set up a limit at that point to see the behavior of the plot of this expression as the limit goes to 0 and using LHopitals Rule for the form 0/0

1 |

@mubaraktamboli6363

1 month ago

Dear sir, you defined 0÷0 = 1 in last but one step. This is false.

1 |

@KookyPiranha

2 weeks ago

it's called proof by contradiction

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@joshuaweg3853

2 months ago

a-b = 0 and you cannot divide by 0

2 |

@martyrosadil9989

1 week ago

a-b=1-1=0,so you can't devide by that

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@sugarfrosted2005

2 months ago

Technically this does prove 1=0, when you localize at zero, because you allowed division by zero.

2 |

@8mileshigh

1 month ago

I know this "slight of hand" in a slightly more subtle way.
The beginning is the same up to

a^2 = ab

Then subtract b^2 on both sides

a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2

Then factorize both sides

(a-b)(a+b) = b(a-b)

Divide by a-b on both sides

Which gives you a+b = b , plug the 1 back in gives you 2=1

It's a bit more "magic" because you don't just divide by a-b for no reason but you divide because you find it on both sides of the equation.
It hides the fact that you are dividing by 0 a little more effectively.

1 |

@MRNIK404

2 months ago

By the way, are you single ?(Its for research purposes)

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